A story on a local organization reaching out to help the unhoused in my current area. The director of the organization is quoted using the term “unhoused”, but the reporter (or their editor) decided to use the more charged term “homeless” in the by-line and the article.
From the UK here, is there context to why it is political or shouldn’t be used over the other? I am not familiar with it being a political term in the UK. I am asking out of a desire to learn not interject with an opinion more than anything
No worries. It does rely on some knowledge of American subcultures though, and how much some of us like fucking with words. We dont give no fucks how we sound, often.
Homelessness, then, is a major wedge issue, particularly with the right, as they try to pin the blame for it on their opposition. That wedge-issue-ness is tied into feelings, how they feel about homeless. When you change the name though, that context can change. The new name doesn’t summon the old feelings anymore.
This is why you always see the right put so much focus on controlling language, to them language is perception, and is more cultural and individual than dem voters tend to see it.
So you’ll frequently get this ring-around-the-rosie where the left comes up with terms, the right turns them into insults, the left comes up with new ones, etc etc.
How the hell do they do that? What policies are they pushing that would help the homeless?
Here, they try not to mention it as a societal problem at all, and if they do they paint it as inevitable and/or deserved.
Average joe kinda implies middle American, so no, probably not.
Are you saying you don’t think republicans try to blame the homeless problem on democrats?