cross-posted from: https://lemmit.online/post/5938935
This is an automated archive made by the Lemmit Bot.
The original was posted on /r/todayilearned by /u/sleekpaprika69 on 2025-05-29 01:09:43+00:00.
cross-posted from: https://lemmit.online/post/5938935
This is an automated archive made by the Lemmit Bot.
The original was posted on /r/todayilearned by /u/sleekpaprika69 on 2025-05-29 01:09:43+00:00.
How would the US have even been capable of intervening?
Largely diplomaticly and financially. The US actively supported secessionists with guns and money. Being fair the little federation was never very stable, but the US got involved immediately to ensure it never found it’s footing.
Imagine that, if during the first Constitutional Convention in the late 1780’s, if Europe had sent envoys to separate factions with an assload of weapons and whispered “hey, you really gonna let them get away with that shit? I got your back bro if this gets bloody…”
That’s kinda what we did.
Do you have sources for that? The US only had a competent federal government itself for a short period before this.
Guns. See also the Spanish American war.
The US has a lot of rich people who own fruit companies who have an interest in making as much money as possible on the backs of wage slaves.
Were there international American fruit companies at that point? Seemed like you could just use your American slaves.